Chapter Test 6

English FormB CCNA3 Version3.1 Module6 – 2006 fall

1. A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured? (Choose three.)
***The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their NICs.
The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.
***All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.
Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.
***All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.
All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.

2. How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network? (Choose three.)
***Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.
Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.
***Unused ports can be shutdown.
Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.
Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.
***Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a port to access the network.

3. An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch, a Catalyst 2950, is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which two commands can the technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)
***Switch# show port security
Switch# show version
Switch# show startup-config
***Switch# clear mac-address-table dynamic
Switch# reload
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

4. After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What can the technician assume? (Choose two.)
The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.
The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.
***The POST has failed.
The boot sequence is in process.
***A fatal error has occurred.
The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.

5. Which switch command mode should always be password protected?
User Command
User Config
User EXEC
User Privileged
***Privileged EXEC

6. Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?
a crossover cable
a patch cable
***a rollover cable
a straight-thru cable

7. Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)
flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin
running-config
VLAN.bin
***startup-config
c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat
***VLAN.dat

8. A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?
delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS
***deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network
remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the switch
delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch
configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode

9. Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode? (Choose three.)
***Ctrl+z
disable
***end
***exit
logout

10. Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade procedure?
HTTP
Telnet
***TFTP
TTY
IOS

11. A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a backup of the switch IOS image on the server?
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy running-config tftp
***Switch# copy flash tftp
Switch# copy IOS tftp
Switch# copy tftp flash
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp

12. What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900 series switch?
Rename the Flash file.
Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.
***Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.
Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.
Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.

13. What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?
RPS
bootstrap
***power-on self test
system STAT
pre-boot

14. What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?
***amber
green
red
white
off

15. Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)
copy a configuration from a FTP server
***type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode
***enter the System Configuration dialog
Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file
connect to the switch using a web browser

16. An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of arguments available in the syntax for this command?
Switch# c?
Switch# c ?
Switch# configure?
***Switch# configure ?

17. From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?
config
user EXEC
***privileged EXEC
command EXEC
flash

18. Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?
***The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.
The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.
The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.
Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.
The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.

19. How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has been turned off or moved to another device?
30 seconds
180 seconds
***300 seconds
30 minutes

20. When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol indicates that the image was copied successfully?
e
*
***!
s
#

Chapter Test 7

English FormB CCNA3 Version3.1 Module7 – 2006 fall

1. Which algorithm is used to create a loop free switched topology?
***Spanning Tree
Shortest Path First
Dykstra
Rapid Tree
Bellman-Ford

2. What elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
***one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
***one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

3. How often are BPDUs sent by default in a network using the spanning-tree algorithm?
every second
***every two seconds
every three seconds
every four seconds

4. Which of the following are valid STP port states? (Choose three.)
***blocking
***learning
converging
***listening
Switching

5. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
***learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

6. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
***forwarding

7. Which of the following are problems that can occur in redundantly switched networks? (Choose three.)
***broadcast storms
corrupted ARP tables
duplicate MAC addresses
inaccurate routing tables
***multiple copies of Ethernet frames
***MAC address table instability

8. Switch_A and Switch_B shown in the graphic receive an ARP request from the host and forward it out their ports. The switches receive the forwarded requests from each other and in turn flood the requests again. What will be the result if this process continues?
***a broadcast storm
multicast errors
ARP table errors
MAC address instability
redundant unicast frame forwarding

9. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
***election of the root bridge
determination of the designated port for each segment
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
activation of the root port for each segment

10. Which of the following criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
memory size
***bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
***base MAC address
switch location

11. How is the information contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
***to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
***to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
to activate looped paths throughout the network

12. Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host1 needs to transfer data to host2, but host1 has no MAC address entry in its ARP cache for host2. What will happen on the network as host1 prepares to transmit its data to host2?
Host1 will receive an ICMP destination unknown message from switch3.
***All hosts in the network shown will receive an ARP request message from host1.
Multicasting will occur until host2 is located.
Switch3 will send the host2 MAC address from its bridging table to host1.
A broadcast storm will occur.

13. What happens when there is a topology change on a network that utilizes STP ? (Choose two.)
***User traffic is disrupted until recalculation is complete.
The switch recomputes the Spanning Tree topology after the network converges.
All ports are placed in learning state until convergence has occurred.
***A delay of up to 50 seconds is incurred for convergence of the new Spanning Tree topology.
User data is forwarded while BPDUs are exchanged to recompute the topology.

14. Which of the following describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
***They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
***They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

15. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure the switch as the static root bridge.
Change the BPDU to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
***Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.

16. What characteristic of Ethernet makes a redundantly switched network prone to loops?
Routers are only able to prevent loops at Layer 3, while Ethernet exists at Layer 2.
***The Ethernet protocol has no TTL mechanism.
Switches lack the sophisticated software required to prevent loops.
Looping of frames is a reliability mechanism built in to the Ethernet protocol.

17. What link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
***shared
end-to-end
***edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
***point-to-point

18. Following a link failure, when does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allow point-to-point and edge type links to go to the forwarding state?
in 15 seconds
never
***immediately
in 30 seconds
after 90 seconds

19. How much time does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
2 seconds
15 seconds
20 seconds
***50 seconds

20. Refer to the graphic. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will kill the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
***Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
Switch_B will broadcast the request and reply with the Router_1 address.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

21. How does a switch forward a multicast frame through the network?
It floods it to all ports as a broadcast.
It is forwarded only to ports that contain the destination address.
It is sent to the port that contains the first destination address.
***It floods it to all ports except the one it was received on.
It is dropped and not sent to any address.

22. What is meant by “five nines” network uptime?
A network should be available until 9:00 pm five days of the week.
***A network should be functioning 99.999% of the time.
There should be five nine-port uplinks for each backbone segment.
Five percent of network expenditures should address 99% of user requirements.
Nothing short of 100% network uptime is acceptable in modern networks.

23. What features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose three.)
***the max-age timer
***the listening forward delay
the spanning-tree hold down timer
***the learning forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

Chapter Test 5

1. Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)
***adaptability
***manageability
operability
***scalability
stability

2. When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting collision domains occur?
Layer 1
***Layer 2
Layer 4
Layer 7

3. Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)
***throughput
***response time
workstation speed
***access to resources
desktop applications

4. What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and Main Distribution Facilities?
patch cables of variable lengths
horizontal cross-connect cabling
***vertical cross-connect cabling
parallel cross-connect cabling

5. Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)
inter-VLAN routing
****Layer 2 filtering
Layer 3 filtering
***microsegmentation
bandwidth security

6. A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)
access
***data link
***network
internet
transport

7. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone?
access
distribution
network
***core
workgroup
WAN

8. At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?
application
***access
distribution
network
core

9. Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the workgroups in which they occur?
application
access
***distribution
network
core

10. Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
***redundant paths
high-level policy enforcement
packet manipulation
media transitions
***rapid forwarding of traffic
***no packet filtering

11. What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution layer?
filtering of core switching errors
***preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer
preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer
maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy
isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks

12. A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?
***functionality
sustainability
adaptability
manageability
scalability

13. To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)
sustainability
reliability
manageability
***adaptability
functionality
***scalability

14. What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)
replacing hubs with switches
***segmenting the network by installing a router
***creating VLANs for each workgroup
adding additional hubs to the local area network
replacing routers with LAN switches
adding bridges to connect different workgroups

15. Where should DNS and email servers be located?
IDF
***MDF
HCC
VCC
POP

16. Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?
FDDI
***Ethernet
Wireless
Token Ring

17. VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to communicate with hosts on VLAN2?
VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.
The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.
***A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.
An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.
Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.

18. A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?
one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces
multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces
multi-port gigabit switches
***switches running VLANs
managed smart hubs

19. Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)
***hubs
bridges
***switches
routers

20. Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that of the horizontal cable?
Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.
***Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.
Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.

Chapter Test 4

1. Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given number of errors?
cut-through
adaptive fast-forward
fragment-free
***adaptive cut-through

2. Which of the following is used to build a switching table?
source IP addresses
destination IP addresses
destination MAC addresses
***source MAC addresses

3. How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)
***The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is discarded.
***If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is flooded out all other interfaces.
***If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded out the associated interface.
If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded to all ports.

4. What does switch latency describe?
forwarding method used by a switch
time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch
improvement in network performance from using a switch
***time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch
increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch

5. Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)
It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.
***It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth client interfaces.
***It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.
It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher bandwidth interface.
It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server links.
***It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.

6. Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network? (Choose two.)
***They increase the number of collision domains.
They decrease the number of collision domains.
They increase the number of broadcast domains.
They decrease the number of broadcast domains.
***They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.
They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.

7. Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)
***Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
They create separate collision domains.
***Signals are distributed through all ports.
Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.
They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.
***Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.

8. Hubs are concerned with which PDU?
***bits
frames
packets
datagrams

9. Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
***destination MAC address
Layer 4-7 protocol address

10. Which form of buffering is used by bridges?
cut-through
fragment-free
fast-forward
***store-and-forward

11. Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?
ROM
***CAM
Flash
SIMM
NRAM

12. Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
***Frames are processed through a single queue.
***All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.
Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.
A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.
Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.

13. Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?
0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
11:11:11:11
FF:FF:FF:FF
***FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

14. Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by a switch that is using fast-forward mode?
A
B
***C
D
E
F

15. Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the switch is using store-and-forward mode?
A
B
***C
D
E
F

16. What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)
improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent
***segmenting broadcast domains
***forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses
***segmenting collision domains
forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read
developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses

17. Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
to create fewer collision domains
***to enhance user bandwidth
to create more broadcast domains
to eliminate virtual circuits
***to isolate traffic between segments
to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

18. Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?
Switching occurs in software.
***Switching occurs in hardware.
Switches create multiple broadcast domains.
Switches segment LANs.

19. What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)
preventing broadcasts
***increasing available bandwidth per user
***decreasing the size of collision domains
***isolating traffic among segments
routing traffic between different networks
decreasing the number of broadcast domains

20. Which device provides segmentation within a single network?
hub
server
***switch
transceiver

Chapter Test 3

1. What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?
70
***90
100
110
120
255

2. Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)
routes installed by DUAL
lowest calculated metric to each destination
***network layer address of the neighbor routers
***number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent
feasible distance to each neighbor

3. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
***routing
***topology
neighbor
path
shortest path

4. Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)
***A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.
***The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual bandwidth of the link.
Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of buffer overflow.
The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate properly.
Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.

5. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
***the routing protocol
***the feasible distance of the route
the highest cost of the route
the SRTT value for the route
***the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
the physical address of the gateway interface

6. Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?
Router# show ip route
***Router# show ip route eigrp
Router# show eigrp route
Router# show eigrp protocol

7. Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?
show
list
***debug
terminal monitor

8. What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)
adjacency table
***topology table
***neighbor table
***routing table
link state table
ARP table

9. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
***Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

10. What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?
backup route
default route
***feasible successor route
gateway
secondary route
successor route

11. Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?
DUAL
IP
PDM
***RTP
TCP
UDP

12. What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)
Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.
***New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.
A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.
***A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.
***Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.
Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.

13. Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?
router# show ospf neighbor
router# debug neighbor events
router# debug ip ospf neighbor
***router# show ip ospf neighbor

14. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
***routes learned from other routing protocols
routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
***EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
all passive routes in the routing table

15. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
R1(config-router)# auto-summary
***R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
***R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# auto-summary
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

16. If an EIGRP route goes down and a feasible successor is not found in the topology table, how does DUAL flag the route that has failed?
recomputed
passive
***active
down
unreachable
successor

17. Which EIGRP command is used to view all routes that are known by the router?
show ip eigrp interfaces detail
show ip eigrp traffic
show ip eigrp neighbors
***show ip eigrp topology all-links

Chapter Test 2

English FormB CCNA3 Version3.1 Module2 – 2006 fall

1. Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on RouterA?
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 area 1
***RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-route)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.254.0 area 0

2. How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)
It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.
***It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.
The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.
It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.
***It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.

3. Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?
router# show ospf serial 0
router# show interface serial 0 OSPF
router# show ip interface serial 0
***router# show ip ospf interface serial 0

4. Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a clear text password of apollo?
Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo
***Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo

5. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the network?
RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
***There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

6. Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0
***RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

7. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
***OSPF interval timers mismatch
gateway of last resort not redistributed
***interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
administrative distance mismatch
***inconsistent authentication configuration

8. In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)
point-to-point
point-to-multipoint
***broadcast multiaccess
***nonbroadcast multiaccess

9. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
root router
backup root router
domain router
backup domain router
***designated router
***backup designated router

10. What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command? (Choose three.)
link-state age intervals
***timer intervals
***router ID number
link-state update intervals
***neighbor adjacencies

11. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
***network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
***wildcard mask
***area ID

12. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
***updates triggered by network changes
updates sent at regular intervals
updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
updates that include complete routing tables

13. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
***Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

14. Which router is the root of an SPF tree?
border router
nearest neighboring router
***local router
trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm

15. Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)
***Link-state protocols require careful network design.
Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.
Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.
***Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.
***Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.
Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.

16. What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks? (Choose three.)
***reduction of routing overhead
increased routing overhead
***faster convergence
slower convergence
distribution of network instability to all areas of the network
***isolation of network instability to one area of the network

17. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
***Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

18. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
***bandwidth
bandwidth and hop count
bandwidth and reliability
bandwidth, load, and reliablity

19. What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
***Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
***HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
***Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

20. The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2, which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the 192.1.1.0 network? (Choose two.)
R1 will be the DR
R1 will be the BDR
***R2 will be the DR
R2 will be the BDR
R3 will be the DR
***R3 will be the BDR

Chapter Test 1

1. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
***RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.
RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.
RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.
RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.
RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.

2. Which of the following statements are true regarding RIP v1 and v2? (Choose three.)
***Both RIP versions use hop count.
Both RIP versions can provide authentication of update sources.
***Both RIP versions use 16 hops as a metric for infinite distance.
RIP v1 uses split horizon to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
RIP v1 uses hold-down times to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
***RIP v1 broadcasts routing table updates, while RIP v2 multicasts its updates.

3. A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
***Select the routing protocol to be configured.
***Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface.
Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
***Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.

4. Router1 and Router2 shown in the topology have been configured with the no ip subnet-zero command. Which of the following valid VLSM network numbers could be used for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.0/30
***192.168.1.4/30
***192.168.1.8/30
192.168.1.96/30
192.168.1.138/30
192.168.1.190/30

5. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address
***router# show ip route
router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update

6.How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
ARP requests from connected routers
***manual configuration of routes
***updates from other routers
DHCP information broadcasts
updates from the SMTP management information base

7. Refer to the network shown. How will Router1 summarize and advertise the four networks attached to its Ethernet ports?
172.16.16.0/20
172.16.19.0/20
172.16.16.0/20 and 172.16.19.0/20
***172.16.16.0/22
172.16.18.0/24
172.16.0.0/24

8. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
3
4
12
36
***84
180

9. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
***/27
/26

10. How often does RIP v1 send routing table updates, by default?
***every 30 seconds
every 45 seconds
every 60 seconds
every 90 seconds

11. What is the default network mask for a Class B address?
255.0.0.0
***255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.255

12. Which subnet mask is represented by the /21 notation?
255.255.224.0
***255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.240.0

13. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
***32-bit address
next hop router interface
***subnet mask
unicast host address
Layer 2 address

14. What is the purpose of the network command used in the configuration of the RIP routing protocol?
It specifies RIP v2 as the routing protocol.
It enables the use of VLSM.
It specifies the fastest path to the destination route.
***It specifies which interfaces will exchange RIP routing updates.
It activates RIP for all routes that exist within the enterprise network.

15. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
***the shortage of IP addresses
the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises
the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP
the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP

16. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system
***utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system
utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system

17. A Class C network address has been subnetted into eight subnetworks. Using VLSM, the last subnet will be divided into eight smaller subnetworks. What bit mask must be used to create eight smaller subnetworks, each having two usable host addresses?
/26
/27
/28
/29
***/30
/31

18. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.16/26
192.1.1.96/28
192.1.1.160/28
192.1.1.196/27
***192.1.1.224/28
192.1.1.240/28

19. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
***The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

20. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
192.1.1.128/25
192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
192.1.1.0/24
***192.1.1.0/25
192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24

Chapter Test 6

1

What are some of the advantages of using a link-state routing protocol instead of a distance vector routing protocol? (Choose two.)

The topology database eliminates the need for a routing table.

Frequent periodic updates are sent to minimize the number of incorrect routes in the topological database.

**Routers have direct knowledge of all links in the network and how they are connected.

**After the inital LSA flooding, they generally require less bandwidth to communicate changes in a topology.

Link-state protocols require less router processor power than distance vector protocols.

2

Which two protocols use an addressing scheme to direct user traffic? (Choose two.)

**IP

EIGRP

**IPX

OSPF

RIP

3

All routers at a medium sized company have been upgraded. During the upgrade, the network administrator determined that a more advanced routing protocol using a combination of both distance vector and link state features should be implemented. Which protocol should be selected?

RIP

BGP

OSPF

**EIGRP

4

Assuming that the network shown in the graphic is converged and dynamic routing is enabled, which of the following conditions will cause a modification to the Orlando routing table? (Choose two.)

**The device connecting the S0 interface of the Tampa router to the serial link loses power.

**A network administrator shuts down the Orlando router E0 interface.

A DCHP server connected to the Tampa E1 network loses power.

The IP address of a workstation on the Orlando E0 network is reassigned.

A host on the Orlando E1 network transmits data to a server on the Tampa E1 network.

A Telnet connection to the Orlando router fails.

5

Given the command, RouterC(config)# ip route 197.5.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.10.1.1, what does the address 192.10.1.1 represent?

the source host

**the next hop router

the outbound interface

the destination network

6

Referring to the diagram, which commands will enable hosts on the Idaho E0 network to reach hosts on the E0 network of the Montana router? (Choose two.)

Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.5.1

**Montana(config)# ip route 172.31.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1

Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1

**Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.0 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.2

Idaho(config)# ip route 172.31.5.1 255.255.255.0 172.31.4.1

7

Describe the switching function that occurs in a router.

allows the router to make forwarding decisions based on Layer 2 addressing

uses network addressing to select the best route and interface to forward data

**accepts a packet on one interface and forwards it to a second interface

enables the router to select the most appropriate interface for forwarding a packet

8

Which type of address does a router use to make routing decisions?

source IP address

source MAC address

**destination IP address

destination MAC address

9

Which two statements describe autonomous systems? (Choose two.)

Interior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.

**Exterior gateway protocols are used between autonomous systems.

An autonomous system may be under the control of multiple organizations.

**An autonomous system is identified by a 16 bit number assigned by ARIN.

The autonomous system is identified in the network portion of the IP address.

10

Which of the following are valid static IP routes? (Choose three.)

RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 S1

**RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 S1

**RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2

RouterB(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2

**RouterC(config)# ip route 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.1

RouterA(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.1

11

If dynamic routing is not configured on a router, how do routing table updates occur?

Link state advertisements are sent from other routers.

**Updates are made to the routing table by the administrator.

Best path information is communicated by network hosts.

The routing table is updated by neighboring routers.

12

What can be concluded about the routing process on a router if the commands router rip and network 192.5.5.0 have been issued? (Choose three.)

A distance vector routing protocol was used.

**A link-state routing protocol was used.

**Routing updates will broadcast every 30 seconds.

Routing updates will broadcast every 90 seconds.

**Hop count is the metric used for route selection.

Bandwidth, load, delay, and reliability are the metrics used for route selection.

13

Which are the primary functions used by a router when forwarding data?(Choose two.)

data encryption

error notification

**packet switching

address identification

**path determination

packet validation

14

Select the statements that describe link-state routing processes? (Choose three.)

**Each router develops its own map of the entire network.

**Routers send triggered updates when changes in the network occur.

**Link-state routing protocols place a higher load on router resources during the routing protocol initialization.

Link-state protocols are more prone to routing loops than distance vector routing protocols.

Networks using link-state routing protocols are slower to reach convergence after changes have occurred than those using distance vector protocols.

15

How does a router learn about routes to a network? (Choose three.)

**Information is gathered from its own configuration regarding directly connected networks.

Switches forward destination address information to each router.

Hosts communicate destination network information to each router.

**Other routers forward information about known networks.

**Routes are entered manually by a network administrator.

Routes are learned from information gathered from ARP tables.

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16

Which of the following conditions must be met in order for a network to have converged?

The routers in the network are operating with dynamic routing protocols.

The routers in the network are operating with compatible versions of IOS.

The routers in the network are operating with the same routing tables.

**The routers in the network are operating with consistent routing knowledge.

17

What is the purpose of a routing protocol?

It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

**It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

18

Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols?

Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.

Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.

**Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

19

Which is an exterior routing protocol commonly used between ISPs?

RIP

**BGP

OSPF

EIGRP

20

Which of the following statements are true regarding the command ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.1? (Choose three.)

**This command is used to set up a static route.

This command is used to set up a default route.

**This command is entered from global configuration mode.

**All packets intended for network 172.16.1.0 will be sent to gateway 172.16.2.1.

All packets intended for network 172.16.2.1 will be sent to gateway 172.16.1.0.

21

Why is it necessary to specify a list of networks when configuring an interior routing protocol?

to tell the router how to reach those networks

**to tell the router which attached networks participate in routing updates

to tell the router which set of metrics to use for the attached networks

to tell the router which routing protocol to use

22

Which category of routing algorithms discovers and maintains a topological map of the entire internetwork?

static

Bellman-Ford

exterior gateway

Internetwork Packet Exchange

distance vector

**link-state

Chapter Test 5

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1

Which two items below are required by routers in order for them to perform their basic operations? (Choose two.)

a tftp server

*a configuration file

a configuration register file

*an operating system file

a DNS table

2

The Cisco IOS image naming convention allows identification of different versions and capabilities of the IOS. What information can be gained from the filename c2600-d-mz.121-4? (Choose two.)

The “mz” in the filename represents the special capabilities and features of the IOS.

The file is uncompressed and requires 2.6 MB of RAM to run.

*The software is version 12.1, 4th revision.

The file is downloadable and 121.4MB in size.

*The IOS is for the Cisco 2600 series hardware platform.

3

If a router cannot find a valid configuration file during the startup sequence, what will occur?

The startup sequence will reset.

*The router will prompt the user for a response to enter setup mode.

The startup sequence will halt until a valid configuration file is acquired.

The router will generate a default configuration file based on the last valid configuration.

The router will monitor local traffic to determine routing protocol configuration requirements.

4

Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes flash memory.

provides working storage

*stores a fully functional IOS image

stores the startup configuration file

initializes the code used to boot the router

5

If boot system commands have been configured, which of the following could happen if a router fails to obtain an IOS image from the primary sources during bootup?

*The router will load a subset of a full IOS version from system ROM.

The router will attempt to reboot two times before failing.

The router will load the last good IOS image from NVRAM.

The administrator will be prompted to load a valid IOS image.

6

What command can be used in ROM monitor mode to run the IOS image in flash?

rommon1> config-register 0×2102

*rommon1> boot flash:filename

rommon1> xmodem:filename

rommon1> boot system flash:filename

rommon1> reload system flash:

7

Where does a router look for boot system statements?

ROM

RAM

*NVRAM

Flash

8

What does a configuration register setting of 0×2102 indicate on a router?

It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from NVRAM.

It tells the router to locate and load the IOS from FLASH.

*It tells the router to bypass the configuration in NVRAM.

It tells the router to look in the startup configuration for boot system commands.

9

Which of the following can be configured as a source for the IOS image by using the boot system command? (Choose two.)

*TFTP server

HTTP server

Telnet server

*Flash memory

NVRAM memory

10

An IOS image can be copied into flash from a TFTP server. Which of the following statements are true regarding this process? (Choose three.)

*A series of “!’s” are displayed as the image is downloaded successfully to flash.

The copy tftp flash:filename ip address command is used to copy the IOS from the server to flash.

*After the new flash image is downloaded, it is verified.

*A series of “e’s” are displayed as the current IOS image is erased from flash.

Flash must be cleared with the erase command prior to beginning the download process.

11

Which command will display the source of the system boot image?

Router# show version

Router# show config-register

Router# show start-up config

Router# show running-config

Router# show flash

12

Which command will copy an IOS image from a TFTP server to a router?

*Router# copy tftp flash

Router# copy flash tftp

Router(config)# copy tftp flash

Router(config)# copy flash tftp

13

Which part of the configuration register indicates the location of the IOS?

the bootstrap

*the boot field

the IOS locator

the system image loader

14

Which command is used to change the order in which the router looks for system bootstrap information?

config-image

config-system

*config-register

config-bootfield

config system bootstrap

15

Routers have different types of memory. Choose the answer that describes NVRAM.

provides working storage

stores a fully functional IOS image

*stores the startup configuration file

initializes the code that is used to boot the router

Take Assessment – Module 5 Exam – CCNA 2 Router and Routing Basics (Version 3.1)

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16

Which of the following are steps in saving a router configuration file to a TFTP server? (Choose three.)

Enter configuration mode.

*Enter the IP address to the TFTP server.

*Use the copy running-config tftp command.

Use the copy tftp running-config command.

*Name the configuration file or accept the default name.

17

If the configuration register instructs a router to look for configuration information in NVRAM and no boot system commands exist there, from where will the router next attempt to boot the IOS?

RAMR

ROM

*FLASH

EPROM

ROMMON

18

The router has been configured with a valid configuration file. Which of the following could be a cause for a router not booting normally? (Choose two.)

*The flash image is corrupt.

A console cable is disconnected.

The flash image is located in NVRAM.

The startup configuration file is incomplete.

*The router encountered a hardware error.

19

Which command will backup configuration files from RAM to NVRAM or a TFTP server?

backup

*copy

telnet

move

Chapter test 3

1

Which commands display information about the IOS or configuration files stored in router memory? (Choose three.)

Router# show ram

Router# show flash *

Router# show hosts

Router# show history

Router# show version *

Router# show startup-config *

2

Select the commands that will store the current configuration file to a network TFTP server? (Choose two.)

Router# copy run tftp

Router# copy tftp run

Router# copy running-config tftp *

Router# copy tftp running-config *

Router(config)# copy running-config tftp

Router(config)# copy tftp running-config

3

Router names are associated with IP addresses. What is the name of the table that is created by this association?

IP table

SAP table

ARP table

MAC table

HOST table *

RARP table

4

Select the correct sequence of commands that will configure “Engineering LAN” as the interface description on the Ethernet0 interface.

Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# interface e0 description Engineering LAN

Router# configure terminal *

Router(config)# interface e0 *

Router(config-if)# description Engineering LAN *

Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# interface e0

Router(config-if)# interface description Engineering LAN

Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# description Engineering LAN

5

What must be configured to establish a serial link between two routers that are directly connected?

a clock rate on the DTE interface

a no clock rate command on the DTE interface

no configuration is required

a clock rate on the DCE interface *

6

Which statements are true regarding the recommended use of login banners? (Choose two.)

They should be used to display information regarding system changes or maintenance. *

They should be used to display warnings to unauthorized users. *

They should be used to display welcome messages prior to login.

They should be seen only by system administrators.

They should provide confirmation of incoming IP addresses.

7

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

VTY interface *

console interface *

Ethernet interface

secret EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode *

router configuration mode

8

What are the default settings for a serial interface? (Choose three.)

DTE *

DCE

shutdown*

no IP address*

clock rate 56000

encapsulation ARPA

9

The serial connection shown in the graphic needs to be configured. Which configuration commands must be made on the Sydney router to establish connectivity with the Melbourne site? (Choose three.)

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.2 255.255.255.0

Sydney(config-if)# no shutdown*

Sydney(config-if)# ip address 201.100.53.1 255.255.255.224*

Sydney(config-if)# clock rate 56000*

Sydney(config-if)# ip host Melbourne 201.100.53.2

10

What is the default state of the interfaces on a router?

up, line protocol down

down, line protocol down*

adminstratively down, line protocol down

up, line protocol up

11

Which command sequence will permit access to all five router virtual terminal lines with a password of cisco?

Router(config-line)#config telnet

Router(config-line)# line vty 0 5

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4

Router(config)# password cisco

Router(config)# line vty 0 4*

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# login

Router(config-line)# config telnet

Router(config-line)# password cisco

Router(config-line)# sessions 0 4

12

Select the commands necessary to remove any existing configuration on a router. (Choose two.)

delete flash

erase startup-config*

erase running-config*

restart

reload

delete NVRAM

13

Select the interface descriptions that provide the most appropriate information. (Choose two.)

circuit number

host IP address*

telnet password*

number of hops between routers

purpose and location of the interface

14

Select the recommended locations to save a running-config file. (Choose three.)

all network hosts

network server*

floppy disk*

TFTP server*

server that is not on the network

15

What will be the response from the router after the command, “router(config)# hostname portsmouth” is entered?

portsmouth#

portsmouth(config)#*

invalid input detected

router(config-host)#

hostname = portsmouth

portsmouth#

? command not recognized

router(config)#

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16

A network administrator wants to assure that any password that permits access to the privileged EXEC mode is not shown in plain text in the configuration files. Which commands will accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

Router(config)#enable cisco secret

Router(config)#enable cisco

*Router(config)#service password-encryption

*Router(config)#enable secret cisco

Router(config)#encrypt-all cisco

Router(config)#service encryption-password

17

What is the effect of the command ip host HQ 192.1.1.1?

permits a ping to 192.1.1.1 with the command ping HQ

assigns the description HQ to the interface with the ip address 192.1.1.1

renames the router as HQ

defines a static route to the host 192.1.1.1

configures the remote device HQ with the ip address of 192.1.1.1

18

An IP network is to be added to a router Ethernet interface. What steps must be performed to configure this interface to allow connectivity to the hosts on this LAN? (Choose two.)

*Enter the command no shutdown.

A password must be set on the interface.

The interface DCE clock rate must be set.

The interface must be configured for virtual terminal access.

*The interface must be configured with an IP address and subnet mask.

The router must be put in setup mode in order for the interface to be configured.

19

Why is it important to create standards for network consistency? (Choose three.)

*reduces network complexity

increases unplanned downtime

*limits unplanned downtime

increases bandwidth by regulating networking performance

limits events that may impact network performance

20

Which are valid router prompts? (Choose three.)

Router(privileged)#

*Router(config)#

Router(command)#

*Router(config-router)#

*Router(config-if)#

Router(exec)#

21

A telnet session can be established when using the IP address of a router but not the name of the router. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the problem?

*an incorrect host table entry

an incorrect ARP table entry

an incorrect routing table entry

an incorrect protocol configured

an incorrect subnet mask

22

Which command turns on a router interface?

Router(config-if)# enable

Router(config-if)# no down

Router(config-if)# s0 active

Router(config-if)# interface up

*Router(config-if)# no shutdown