Final Exam

1. Refer to the exhibit. The network has converged and Switch_6 has been elected root bridge of the STP tree. However, network traffic analysis indicates that Switch_1 would be a better root bridge. How can the network administrator make this change, assuming that the spanning-tree priorities are at the default settings?

Set the bridge priority of Switch_1 to 32,768.
Set the bridge priority of Switch_6 to 65,565.
***Set the bridge priority of Switch_1 to 1.
Set the bridge priority of Switch_6 to 255.

2. When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
when a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
when a router has more than three active interfaces
***when a router has discontiguous networks attached
when a router has less than five active interfaces

3. Refer to the output in the exhibit. What can be determined from the information shown?
VTP has been enabled for all ports.
Hosts in VLAN11 and VLAN22 must have IP addresses in the same subnet in order for them to exchange data.
Three ports have been assigned to the management VLAN.
***ARP requests issued by the host on port Fa0/12 will be seen by all hosts on VLAN33.

4. Refer to the OSPF network in the exhibit. Router R2 has been elected DR, but router R1 is the more powerful router. How can the network administrator configure R1 to force it to be elected as DR?
R1(config)# ospf priority 1
R1(config)# ip ospf priority 255
R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R1(config-if)# ospf priority 0
R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 0
***R1(config)# interface fastethernet 0/0
R1(config-if)# ip ospf priority 255

5. Which of the following are attributes of link-state routing protocols? (Choose three.)
Periodic updates are sent every 120 seconds to neighboring routers.
Each router sends its entire routing table to neighboring routers.
***Routers send updates when a change in the network is detected.
***Link-state protocols converge more rapidly than distance vector protocols.
After convergence, link-state protocols use more bandwidth than distance vector protocols use.
***Link-state protocols are less prone to routing loops than distance vector protocols.

6. Refer to the exhibit. What will be the result of DR elections in the OSPF network shown? (Choose three.)
***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.4.0/24 network.
ID3 will be DR of the 172.16.4.0/24 network.
***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.5.0/24 network.
ID1 will be DR of the 172.16.5.0/24 network.
***CTL will be DR of the 172.16.8.0/24 network.
ID2 will be DR of the 172.16.8.0/24 network.

7. The network administrator shown in the exhibit is connected to an Ethernet LAN port on ACC-1. The administrator needs to verify the configuration of the newly installed switch ACC-3. What must be done so that the administrator can access ACC-3 with a web browser? (Choose three.)
***Establish the Layer 3 connectivity of the host to ACC-3.
Set the password on the management VLAN.
Configure the hostname on ACC-3.
***Activate the HTTP service on ACC-3.
***Configure IP addressing parameters on ACC-3.

8. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure a router interface to serve the newly added network 192.168.10.64/27 and to advertise this network over RIP v2? (Choose three.)
***RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP network number for the new network.
RIP v2 must be configured with the network command and the IP host address and subnet mask for the newly activated interface.
The router must be configured with the ip subnet-zero command so that this network can be added and advertised.
***A network host address and subnet mask must be applied to the newly activated interface.
***The routing protocol must be activated with the router rip and version 2 commands.
RIP v2 must be configured on the other enterprise routers with an entry for the newly added network.

9. Multiple routers have been configured with EIGRP as the routing protocol for use in the corporate network. What is true of the operation of this network? (Choose three.)
Only link-state protocols will run in the network.
***Routing information in the form of partial updates will be sent in response to topology changes.
***The network can support multiple routed protocols.
***Hello packets are used to discover and verify the status of neighboring routers.
Routing updates are broadcast to all other routers in the network.
Routing updates that consist of entire routing tables are sent to neighboring routers.

10. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following commands would be used on the router to provide communication between the two hosts connected to the switch?
interface vlan 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
interface vlan 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
no shutdown
***interface fastethernet 0/0
no shutdown
interface fastethernet 0/0.2
encapsulation dot1q 2
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0
interface fastethernet 0/0.3
encapsulation dot1q 3
ip address 192.168.3.1 255.255.255.0
interface vlan 2
switchport mode trunk dot1q
interface vlan 3
switchport mode trunk dot11
interface fastethernet 0/0
mode trunk dot1q 2 3
ip address 192.168.2.1 255.255.255.0

11. Refer to the exhibit. Two Catalyst switches are connected, and both switches have ports configured for the Sales and Marketing VLANs as shown. What will allow hosts on the same VLAN to communicate with one another across different switches?
STP
VTP
routing
***trunking

12. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to configure switch SW-A with a default gateway. Assuming the switch IP address is 192.168.120.12/24, what command string will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to the switch?
SW-A(config)# ip gateway 192.168.120.1
SW-A(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.120.255
SW-A(config)# ip route 192.168.120.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0
SW-A(config)# ip default-route 192.168.120.254
***SW-A(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.120.254

13. What is the first step in the spanning-tree process?
elect a designated switch
use a router to locate a default gateway
***elect a root bridge
determine the path cost of each active port on the switch

14. What is the first parameter used to determine which switch is selected as the root bridge in a spanning-tree network?
highest path cost
highest priority number
highest Layer 2 address
***lowest priority number
lowest path cost
lowest Layer 2 address

15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the highlighted value of 64 shown in the routing table?
It is the administrative distance.
It is the value assigned by the Dijkstra algorithm that designates how many hops are in the network.
It is the value used by the DUAL algorithm to determine the bandwidth for the link.
***It is the metric, which is cost.

16. A new switch has been added to the network and it needs to support error-free switching. Which switching mode should be configured on the new switch?
cut-through
fragment-free
***store and forward
auto-sensing

17. Refer to the exhibit. What is the most efficient summarization of the routes attached to router R1?
198.18.0.0/16
***198.18.48.0/21
198.18.32.0/22
198.18.48.0/23
198.18.49.0/23
198.18.52.0/22

18. A network administrator asked an assistant to remove several VLANs from a switch. When the assistant entered in the no vlan 1 command an error was received. What was the cause of the error?
VLANs can not be deleted until all ports have been removed from the VLAN assignment.
VLANs can only be deleted by the user that created them.
VLAN 1 can not be deleted until another VLAN has been assigned its duties.
***VLAN1 is the management VLAN by default and can not be deleted.
The command was not entered properly, which caused a syntax error to occur.

19. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are there in the topology shown, assuming that VLANs are not configured on the switches?
one
***two
three
four
six
eight

20. What are two of the benefits that switches provide to a network without VLANs configured? (Choose two.)
They allow creation of permanent virtual circuits.
They decrease network throughput.
They shrink the size of broadcast domains.
***They help eliminate collision domains.
***They allow existing bandwidth to be more efficiently utilized.

21. Refer to the network and command output shown in the exhibit. A network administrator located at the Headquarters site needs to check the configuration of a switch located at the Pacific office. Which command can be used to gain remote access to the Pacific LAN switch, assuming the switch is assigned the IP address 198.19.27.251/24?
Headquarters# telnet Pacific
Headquarters# dial Pacific 198.19.27.251
Headquarters(config)# line vty 0 4
Headquarters(config-line)# telnet Pacific
***Headquarters# telnet 198.19.27.251

22. Which three statements describe full-duplex Ethernet? (Choose three.)
***It utilizes 100% of the bandwidth in both directions.
It requires two wires.
It increases the number of broadcast domains in the network.
***It allows data to be received and sent simultaneously.
***It reduces the number of collisions.
It provides between 60% and 80% of the bandwidth in both directions.

23. The following command was added to a router configuration:

ip route 172.26.153.0 255.255.255.0 198.19.27.249

What two effects will this command have? (Choose two.)
It will create a default route using the interface with the IP address 198.19.27.249 as the next hop.
The route will be marked with an “C” in the routing table.
***It will create a static route to the 172.26.153.0/24 network.
All packets with an unknown destination address will be forwarded to the 172.26.153.0/24 network.
***Routes to network 172.26.153.0 that are learned dynamically will not be used to route packets as long as this configuration command is in effect.

24. Refer to the exhibit. Each switch is shown with its MAC address. Which switch will be elected as the spanning-tree root bridge, if the switches are configured with their default priority values?
Switch_1
Switch_2
Switch_3
Switch_4
***Switch_5
Switch_6

25. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration commands will direct outbound traffic from Corp_1 to the ISP and inbound traffic from the ISP to network 192.168.1.0/24?
***Corp_1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1
Corp_1(config)# ip route 198.19.27.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1
Corp_1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0
Corp_1(config)# ip route 198.19.27.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/0
ISP(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 serial 0/1

26. Refer to the exhibit. What is the correct OSPF configuration for router RT-1?
RT-1(config)# router ospf 1
RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.63 area 0
RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
RT-1(config)# router ospf 0
RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.31 area 0
***RT-1(config)# router ospf 1
RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 0.0.0.31 area 0
RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 0.0.0.3 area 0
RT-1(config)# router ospf 99
RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.0 255.255.255.224 area 0
RT-1(config-router)# network 172.16.21.248 255.255.255.248 area 0

27. Refer to the exhibit. Router LC-1 needs to be configured to provide communication between the networks shown. Which group of commands will configure EIGRP on LC-1 to work within this network?
LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 area 0
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.63 area 0
LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3 no-summary
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3 no-summary
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.192 no-summary
***LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0
LC-1(config)# router eigrp 1
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.0 0.0.0.3
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.4 0.0.0.3
LC-1(config-router)# network 192.168.43.128 0.0.0.192

28. Employees of XYZ Company connect their laptop computers to the office LAN using Ethernet ports. The Cisco switches used in the company network are configured with port security. At which layer of the three-layer design model do these switches operate?
physical
distribution
data link
***access
core

29. Refer to the graphic. Switch 2 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 2. Switch 3 has computers attached that belong to VLAN 3. Switch 1 is a Cisco 2926G Layer 3 switch that has a route module installed. Switch 1 provides connectivity to the other switches and is used to route between the VLANs. At which layer of the three-layer switch design model does Switch 1 operate?
physical
data link
core
access
network
***distribution

30. Performance of the network shown in the exhibit has become poor since the addition of hosts to the network. The network administrator suspects that excessive collisions are causing this problem. If the network is using hubs, what should be done to reduce the collisions?
Add a router to every hub segment.
Replace hubs with access points.
***Replace hubs with switches.
Add additional hubs.

Chapter Test 7

English FormB CCNA3 Version3.1 Module7 – 2006 fall

1. Which algorithm is used to create a loop free switched topology?
***Spanning Tree
Shortest Path First
Dykstra
Rapid Tree
Bellman-Ford

2. What elements will exist in a converged network with one spanning tree? (Choose two.)
***one root bridge per network
all non-designated ports forwarding
***one root port per non-root bridge
multiple designated ports per segment
one designated port per network

3. How often are BPDUs sent by default in a network using the spanning-tree algorithm?
every second
***every two seconds
every three seconds
every four seconds

4. Which of the following are valid STP port states? (Choose three.)
***blocking
***learning
converging
***listening
Switching

5. In which STP state does a port record MAC addresses but not forward user data?
blocking
***learning
disabling
listening
forwarding

6. In which STP state does a switch port transmit user data and learn MAC addresses?
blocking
learning
disabling
listening
***forwarding

7. Which of the following are problems that can occur in redundantly switched networks? (Choose three.)
***broadcast storms
corrupted ARP tables
duplicate MAC addresses
inaccurate routing tables
***multiple copies of Ethernet frames
***MAC address table instability

8. Switch_A and Switch_B shown in the graphic receive an ARP request from the host and forward it out their ports. The switches receive the forwarded requests from each other and in turn flood the requests again. What will be the result if this process continues?
***a broadcast storm
multicast errors
ARP table errors
MAC address instability
redundant unicast frame forwarding

9. What is the first step in the process of convergence in a spanning tree topology?
***election of the root bridge
determination of the designated port for each segment
blocking of the non-designated ports
selection of the designated trunk port
activation of the root port for each segment

10. Which of the following criteria does a switch use to select the root bridge? (Choose two.)
memory size
***bridge priority
switching speed
number of ports
***base MAC address
switch location

11. How is the information contained in BPDUs used by switches? (Choose two.)
to prevent loops by sharing bridging tables between connected switches
to set the duplex mode of a redundant link
***to determine the shortest path to the root bridge
***to determine which ports will forward frames as part of the spanning tree
to activate looped paths throughout the network

12. Refer to the network shown in the graphic. Host1 needs to transfer data to host2, but host1 has no MAC address entry in its ARP cache for host2. What will happen on the network as host1 prepares to transmit its data to host2?
Host1 will receive an ICMP destination unknown message from switch3.
***All hosts in the network shown will receive an ARP request message from host1.
Multicasting will occur until host2 is located.
Switch3 will send the host2 MAC address from its bridging table to host1.
A broadcast storm will occur.

13. What happens when there is a topology change on a network that utilizes STP ? (Choose two.)
***User traffic is disrupted until recalculation is complete.
The switch recomputes the Spanning Tree topology after the network converges.
All ports are placed in learning state until convergence has occurred.
***A delay of up to 50 seconds is incurred for convergence of the new Spanning Tree topology.
User data is forwarded while BPDUs are exchanged to recompute the topology.

14. Which of the following describe the BIDs used in a spanning tree topology? (Choose two.)
They are sent out by the root bridge only after the inferior BPDUs are sent.
***They consist of a bridge priority and MAC address.
Only the root bridge will send out a BID.
***They are used by the switches in a spanning tree topology to elect the root bridge.
The switch with the fastest processor will have the lowest BID.

15. How can a network administrator influence which STP switch becomes the root bridge?
Configure the switch as the static root bridge.
Change the BPDU to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.
Change the BPDU to a lower value than that of the other switches in the network.
***Set the switch priority to a smaller value than that of the other switches in the network.
Set the switch priority to a higher value than that of the other switches in the network.

16. What characteristic of Ethernet makes a redundantly switched network prone to loops?
Routers are only able to prevent loops at Layer 3, while Ethernet exists at Layer 2.
***The Ethernet protocol has no TTL mechanism.
Switches lack the sophisticated software required to prevent loops.
Looping of frames is a reliability mechanism built in to the Ethernet protocol.

17. What link types have been defined for Rapid Spanning-Tree Protocol? (Choose three.)
***shared
end-to-end
***edge-type
boundary-type
point-to-many
***point-to-point

18. Following a link failure, when does Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol allow point-to-point and edge type links to go to the forwarding state?
in 15 seconds
never
***immediately
in 30 seconds
after 90 seconds

19. How much time does it take for a switch port to go from the blocking state to the forwarding state?
2 seconds
15 seconds
20 seconds
***50 seconds

20. Refer to the graphic. Server sends an ARP request for the MAC address of its default gateway. If STP is not enabled, what will be the result of this ARP request?
Router_1 will kill the broadcast and reply with the MAC address of the next hop router.
Switch_A will reply with the MAC address of the Router_1 E0 interface.
***Switch_A and Switch_B will continuously flood the message onto the network.
Switch_B will broadcast the request and reply with the Router_1 address.
The message will cycle around the network until its TTL is exceeded.

21. How does a switch forward a multicast frame through the network?
It floods it to all ports as a broadcast.
It is forwarded only to ports that contain the destination address.
It is sent to the port that contains the first destination address.
***It floods it to all ports except the one it was received on.
It is dropped and not sent to any address.

22. What is meant by “five nines” network uptime?
A network should be available until 9:00 pm five days of the week.
***A network should be functioning 99.999% of the time.
There should be five nine-port uplinks for each backbone segment.
Five percent of network expenditures should address 99% of user requirements.
Nothing short of 100% network uptime is acceptable in modern networks.

23. What features of the Spanning-Tree Protocol contribute to the time it takes for a switched network to converge after a topology change occurs? (Choose three.)
***the max-age timer
***the listening forward delay
the spanning-tree hold down timer
***the learning forward delay
the spanning-tree path cost
the blocking delay

Chapter Test 6

English FormB CCNA3 Version3.1 Module6 – 2006 fall

1. A group of hosts has been connected to a new Fast Ethernet switch. Which of the following statements describe this newly created LAN, if the new switch has not yet been configured? (Choose three.)
***The hosts will negotiate 10 Mbps or 100 Mbps bandwidth with the switch, as required by their NICs.
The hosts will be in separate broadcast domains.
***All of the hosts will be in the same VLAN.
Hosts with 10 Mbps NICs will be unable to communicate with the network.
***All of the hosts should be able to send and receive ARP messages from each other.
All of the hosts connected by Ethernet can manage the switch over Telnet or HTTP.

2. How can a switch be configured to prevent unauthorized hosts from access to a network? (Choose three.)
***Host MAC addresses can be statically assigned to each switch port.
Layer 2 access control lists can be used to prevent unauthorized network access.
***Unused ports can be shutdown.
Passwords and usernames can be set for each Ethernet switch port.
Unused switch ports can be assigned to the management VLAN.
***Port security can be activated to allow only the host with the first MAC address learned on a port to access the network.

3. An old workstation has been replaced with a new one. The workgroup switch, a Catalyst 2950, is not learning the MAC address of the new workstation. A network technician has verified that a static MAC address is not configured on the attached switch port. Which two commands can the technician issue at the switch CLI to further troubleshoot the problem? (Choose two.)
***Switch# show port security
Switch# show version
Switch# show startup-config
***Switch# clear mac-address-table dynamic
Switch# reload
Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

4. After powering up a switch, the network technician notices that the system LED is amber. What can the technician assume? (Choose two.)
The switch is negotiating full or half-duplex mode.
The switch has completed negotiating 10 or 100 Mbps speed.
***The POST has failed.
The boot sequence is in process.
***A fatal error has occurred.
The switch is operating properly and is ready for service.

5. Which switch command mode should always be password protected?
User Command
User Config
User EXEC
User Privileged
***Privileged EXEC

6. Which type of cable is used to connect to the console port on a switch?
a crossover cable
a patch cable
***a rollover cable
a straight-thru cable

7. Which files must be deleted in order to completely remove an existing configuration from a Cisco 2950 switch? (Choose two.)
flash:c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.bin
running-config
VLAN.bin
***startup-config
c2950-c3h2s-mz.120-5-3.WC.1.dat
***VLAN.dat

8. A workstation on a switched Ethernet LAN is to be upgraded with a new Fast Ethernet NIC. What should be done to ensure that the workstation will be able to gain access to the network?
delete the configuration file from the switch and reload IOS
***deactivate port security on the port until the new host has connected to the network
remove the host from the the management VLAN until the new MAC address has been learned by the switch
delete the VLAN.dat file from flash and reboot the switch
configure the attached switch port for full-duplex mode

9. Which commands can be used to change from Global Configuration mode to Privileged EXEC mode? (Choose three.)
***Ctrl+z
disable
***end
***exit
logout

10. Which protocol is used to copy a new IOS image to a Catalyst switch during the upgrade procedure?
HTTP
Telnet
***TFTP
TTY
IOS

11. A new policy for disaster recovery requires copying all critical network configurations and operating systems to a backup server that will be stored offsite. Which command will create a backup of the switch IOS image on the server?
Switch# copy tftp NVRAM
Switch# copy running-config tftp
***Switch# copy flash tftp
Switch# copy IOS tftp
Switch# copy tftp flash
Switch# copy NVRAM tftp

12. What must be done in order to initiate the password recovery procedure on a Catalyst 2900 series switch?
Rename the Flash file.
Enter the setup program by deleting the switch configuration file and rebooting the switch.
***Hold down the MODE button during switch startup.
Wait for the STAT LED to turn green while holding down the Break key.
Hold down the Ctrl-Break keys during switch startup.

13. What is the name of the series of tests that execute every time a switch is powered on?
RPS
bootstrap
***power-on self test
system STAT
pre-boot

14. What color is the System LED if the switch fails the POST?
***amber
green
red
white
off

15. Which methods can be used to perform the initial configuration of a new switch? (Choose two.)
copy a configuration from a FTP server
***type commands manually after entering the Privileged EXEC mode
***enter the System Configuration dialog
Telnet to a local server to copy a configuration file
connect to the switch using a web browser

16. An administrator is using the switch help facility to find the command elements available to the configure command. What would the user type at the command prompt to display the next set of arguments available in the syntax for this command?
Switch# c?
Switch# c ?
Switch# configure?
***Switch# configure ?

17. From which switch command mode can the configure command be used?
config
user EXEC
***privileged EXEC
command EXEC
flash

18. Although the backup configuration file on a Catalyst 2950 switch has been erased, it is found that VLANs are still configured in the switch. What must be done to clear the configured VLANs?
***The vlan.dat file must be erased and the switch reloaded.
The switch flash memory must be purged and the switch rebooted.
The vlan.cfg file must be renamed and IOS restarted.
Each VLAN needs to be deleted individually and the configuration saved.
The switch needs to be restarted, because the old running configuration is still in memory.

19. How long will a host MAC address remain in the address table of a switch after the host has been turned off or moved to another device?
30 seconds
180 seconds
***300 seconds
30 minutes

20. When the copy tftp flash command is used to upgrade the IOS on a switch, which symbol indicates that the image was copied successfully?
e
*
***!
s
#

Chapter Test 5

1. Which of the following are requirements of LAN design? (Choose three.)
***adaptability
***manageability
operability
***scalability
stability

2. When designing a LAN, at which layer of the OSI model does the process of segmenting collision domains occur?
Layer 1
***Layer 2
Layer 4
Layer 7

3. Which of the following affect network availability? (Choose three.)
***throughput
***response time
workstation speed
***access to resources
desktop applications

4. What type of cabling is specified by TIA/EIA standards for interconnection of Intermediate and Main Distribution Facilities?
patch cables of variable lengths
horizontal cross-connect cabling
***vertical cross-connect cabling
parallel cross-connect cabling

5. Which of the following are features of the access layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose two.)
inter-VLAN routing
****Layer 2 filtering
Layer 3 filtering
***microsegmentation
bandwidth security

6. A distribution layer switch operates at which OSI layers? (Choose two.)
access
***data link
***network
internet
transport

7. Which layer of the hierarchical network design model is often referred to as the backbone?
access
distribution
network
***core
workgroup
WAN

8. At which layer of the hierarchical design model do users connect to the network?
application
***access
distribution
network
core

9. Which hierarchical design model layer is responsible for containing network problems to the workgroups in which they occur?
application
access
***distribution
network
core

10. Which of the following are characteristics of the core layer of the hierarchical network design model? (Choose three.)
***redundant paths
high-level policy enforcement
packet manipulation
media transitions
***rapid forwarding of traffic
***no packet filtering

11. What is the primary reason for implementing security and policy routing at the distribution layer?
filtering of core switching errors
***preventing policy and security issues from burdening the core layer
preventing unnecessary security policy decisions from burdening the access layer
maintaining a consistent three-layer security policy
isolating the access layer from traffic destined for other networks

12. A major network upgrade that was designed to improve speed and reliability has recently been completed. Users in one part of the network are experiencing dramatically decreased throughput and loss of connectivity. Which of the LAN design goals was not met for these users?
***functionality
sustainability
adaptability
manageability
scalability

13. To reduce cost on a new network design, administrators select switches that initially will have 100 Mbps interface modules installed but will also have the ability to support 1000 Mbps interface modules. Which of the LAN design goals are being utilized? (Choose two.)
sustainability
reliability
manageability
***adaptability
functionality
***scalability

14. What will increase the number of broadcast domains in a network? (Choose two.)
replacing hubs with switches
***segmenting the network by installing a router
***creating VLANs for each workgroup
adding additional hubs to the local area network
replacing routers with LAN switches
adding bridges to connect different workgroups

15. Where should DNS and email servers be located?
IDF
***MDF
HCC
VCC
POP

16. Which LAN standard uses CSMA/CD as its access method?
FDDI
***Ethernet
Wireless
Token Ring

17. VLAN1 and VLAN2 have been configured on a switch. What must be done for hosts on VLAN1 to communicate with hosts on VLAN2?
VLAN overlapping must be enabled on the switch.
The MAC address must be added to the ARP table in the switch.
***A router must be configured to allow routing between the VLANs.
An entry in the switching table must be configured for each VLAN.
Communication between VLANs is automatically enabled on switches.

18. A network administrator needs to increase bandwidth and reduce traffic on a network. What should be used in the access layer of the hierarchical network design model to dedicate bandwidth to users while limiting broadcast domains?
one router with multiple fast Ethernet interfaces
multiple routers with Fast Ethernet interfaces
multi-port gigabit switches
***switches running VLANs
managed smart hubs

19. Which devices are considered acceptable for creating more connection points at the end of horizontal cable runs? (Choose two.)
***hubs
bridges
***switches
routers

20. Why is it important that the data carrying capacity of vertical cabling be greater than that of the horizontal cable?
Vertical cabling is reserved for high bandwith video conferencing.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from the IDF to the user.
Vertical cabling carries traffic from the enterprise out to the Internet.
***Vertical cabling carries traffic from multiple areas of the network.
Layer-three packets move faster through vertical cabling.

Chapter Test 4

1. Which switching mode changes to store-and-forward mode after it detects a given number of errors?
cut-through
adaptive fast-forward
fragment-free
***adaptive cut-through

2. Which of the following is used to build a switching table?
source IP addresses
destination IP addresses
destination MAC addresses
***source MAC addresses

3. How does an Ethernet bridge handle an incoming frame? (Choose three.)
***The source MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
The destination MAC address and input interface pair are added to the bridging table.
If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is discarded.
***If no match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is flooded out all other interfaces.
***If a match to the destination MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded out the associated interface.
If a match to the source MAC address is found in the bridging table, the frame is forwarded to all ports.

4. What does switch latency describe?
forwarding method used by a switch
time it takes for a frame to be received by a switch
improvement in network performance from using a switch
***time delay between when a frame enters and exits a switch
increase in the size of a collision domain from using a switch

5. Which statements describe asymmetric switching? (Choose three.)
It uses data compression algorithms to manage higher bandwidth interfaces.
***It is often used to provide high bandwidth uplinks for a number of lower bandwidth client interfaces.
***It provides connections between network segments that operate at different bandwidths.
It uses cut-through forwarding when going from a lower bandwidth to a higher bandwidth interface.
It is used to provide more bandwidth to network clients than to backbone or server links.
***It may require buffering frames before forwarding to the destination interface.

6. Which of the following are true regarding the addition of switches to a network? (Choose two.)
***They increase the number of collision domains.
They decrease the number of collision domains.
They increase the number of broadcast domains.
They decrease the number of broadcast domains.
***They increase the amount of bandwidth available to users.
They decrease the amount of bandwidth available to users.

7. Which statements are true regarding hubs? (Choose three.)
***Hubs operate at Layer 1 of the OSI model.
They create separate collision domains.
***Signals are distributed through all ports.
Layer 2 addresses are used to make decisions.
They calculate the CRC for each frame received prior to forwarding.
***Bandwidth is shared among all connected users.

8. Hubs are concerned with which PDU?
***bits
frames
packets
datagrams

9. Which attribute is used by a bridge to make forwarding decisions?
source IP address
source MAC address
destination IP address
***destination MAC address
Layer 4-7 protocol address

10. Which form of buffering is used by bridges?
cut-through
fragment-free
fast-forward
***store-and-forward

11. Where are switching tables stored in a Cisco LAN switch?
ROM
***CAM
Flash
SIMM
NRAM

12. Which statements are true concerning the shared memory buffering used by an Ethernet switch? (Choose two.)
***Frames are processed through a single queue.
***All frames are placed in a common memory buffer.
Frames are placed in a queue for the destination port.
A port with a full memory buffer can cause frames for available ports to be delayed.
Each switch port is statically assigned a buffer of equal size.

13. Which of the following is a Layer 2 broadcast address?
0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
11:11:11:11
FF:FF:FF:FF
***FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF

14. Refer to the graphic. Which point in the frame must be reached before it is forwarded by a switch that is using fast-forward mode?
A
B
***C
D
E
F

15. Refer to the graphic. Which point must be reached before a frame is forwarded when the switch is using store-and-forward mode?
A
B
***C
D
E
F

16. What are the functions of routers? (Choose three.)
improving network performance by increasing latency by twenty to thirty percent
***segmenting broadcast domains
***forwarding packets based on destination network layer addresses
***segmenting collision domains
forwarding packets as soon as the destination MAC address is read
developing routing table entries based on source IP addresses

17. Why would a network administrator segment a network with a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two.)
to create fewer collision domains
***to enhance user bandwidth
to create more broadcast domains
to eliminate virtual circuits
***to isolate traffic between segments
to isolate ARP request messages from the rest of the network

18. Why does a switch have higher throughput compared to a bridge?
Switching occurs in software.
***Switching occurs in hardware.
Switches create multiple broadcast domains.
Switches segment LANs.

19. What are the functions of a Layer 2 Ethernet switch? (Choose three.)
preventing broadcasts
***increasing available bandwidth per user
***decreasing the size of collision domains
***isolating traffic among segments
routing traffic between different networks
decreasing the number of broadcast domains

20. Which device provides segmentation within a single network?
hub
server
***switch
transceiver

Chapter Test 3

1. What is the default administrative distance of EIGRP internal routes?
70
***90
100
110
120
255

2. Which of the following are found in the EIGRP neighbor table? (Choose two.)
routes installed by DUAL
lowest calculated metric to each destination
***network layer address of the neighbor routers
***number of EIGRP packets waiting to be sent
feasible distance to each neighbor

3. In which of the following tables does the EIGRP DUAL algorithm store the primary route to a destination? (Choose two.)
***routing
***topology
neighbor
path
shortest path

4. Why would it be necessary to configure the bandwidth setting on an EIGRP interface rather than leaving it at the default setting? (Choose two.)
***A suboptimal route may be chosen as the best path to a destination if the bandwidth setting is higher than the actual bandwidth of the link.
***The network may be unable to converge if the bandwidth setting does not match the actual bandwidth of the link.
Routing updates might arrive too fast for the interface to handle and be discarded because of buffer overflow.
The configured bandwidth must match the actual speed of the link so the link will operate properly.
Setting the bandwidth to a higher rate will optimize the effective throughput of the link.

5. What information is maintained in the EIGRP topology database for a destination route? (Choose three.)
***the routing protocol
***the feasible distance of the route
the highest cost of the route
the SRTT value for the route
***the route cost as advertised by the neighboring router
the physical address of the gateway interface

6. Which command will display only the current EIGRP routing table entries?
Router# show ip route
***Router# show ip route eigrp
Router# show eigrp route
Router# show eigrp protocol

7. Which of the following router commands is recommended only for troubleshooting specific types of network problems, not for monitoring normal network operation?
show
list
***debug
terminal monitor

8. What tables does EIGRP maintain for each routed protocol it supports? (Choose three.)
adjacency table
***topology table
***neighbor table
***routing table
link state table
ARP table

9. Which of the following statements describes the bounded updates used by EIGRP?
Bounded updates are sent to all routers within an autonomous system.
***Partial updates are sent only to routers that need the information.
The updates are sent to all routers in the routing table.
Updates are bounded by the routers in the topology table.

10. What is the EIGRP term for a backup route?
backup route
default route
***feasible successor route
gateway
secondary route
successor route

11. Which Layer 4 protocol does EIGRP use to provide reliability for the transmission of routing information?
DUAL
IP
PDM
***RTP
TCP
UDP

12. What is the advantage of routers forming adjacencies when using EIGRP? (Choose three.)
Neighbor routers can quickly take over for a router that is in passive mode.
***New routers and their routes can quickly be discovered by neighbor routers.
A router can share routing loads with neighbor routers.
***A router can quickly discover when a neighbor router is no longer available.
***Changes in network topology can quickly be shared with neighbor routers.
Neighbor routers can save overhead by sharing their DUAL databases.

13. Which command will help identify established OSPF neighbor adjacencies?
router# show ospf neighbor
router# debug neighbor events
router# debug ip ospf neighbor
***router# show ip ospf neighbor

14. Which of the following types of routes will be denoted by EX in EIGRP routing table entries? (Choose two.)
***routes learned from other routing protocols
routes learned from any non-adjacent EIGRP routers
any route with a hop count metric higher than 224
***EIGRP routes that originate in different autonomous systems
all passive routes in the routing table

15. Host 192.168.1.66 in the network illustrated is unable to ping host 192.168.1.130. How must EIGRP be configured to enable connectivity between the two hosts? (Choose two.)
R1(config-router)# network 192.168.1.128
R1(config-router)# auto-summary
***R1(config-router)# no auto-summary
***R2(config-router)# no auto-summary
R2(config-router)# auto-summary
R2(config-router)# network 192.168.1.64

16. If an EIGRP route goes down and a feasible successor is not found in the topology table, how does DUAL flag the route that has failed?
recomputed
passive
***active
down
unreachable
successor

17. Which EIGRP command is used to view all routes that are known by the router?
show ip eigrp interfaces detail
show ip eigrp traffic
show ip eigrp neighbors
***show ip eigrp topology all-links

Chapter Test 2

English FormB CCNA3 Version3.1 Module2 – 2006 fall

1. Which command sequence will enable OSPF in the backbone area for the two Ethernet links on RouterA?
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255 area 1
***RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 10
RouterA(config-router)# area 0 network 172.16.4.0 0.0.1.255
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-route)# network 172.16.4.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.5.0 255.255.255.0
RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
RouterA(config-router)# network 172.16.4.0 255.255.254.0 area 0

2. How can the OSPF cost for a link be established? (Choose two.)
It is set to 1544 by default for all OSPF interfaces.
***It can be set with the ip ospf cost command.
The configured loopback addresses map to link costs.
It is calculated proportionally to observed throughput capacity of the router.
***It may be calculated using the formula 108/bandwidth.

3. Which router command will display the interface priority value and other key information for the OSPF configuration of the serial 0 interface?
router# show ospf serial 0
router# show interface serial 0 OSPF
router# show ip interface serial 0
***router# show ip ospf interface serial 0

4. Because of security concerns, a network administrator wants to set up authentication between two routers. Which of the following commands will configure Router_A to trust Router_B with a clear text password of apollo?
Router_A(config-if)# ospf authentication-key apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip authentication-key apollo
Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication apollo
***Router_A(config-if)# ip ospf authentication-key apollo

5. RouterA, RouterB, and RouterC in the diagram are running OSPF on their Ethernet interfaces. Loopback interfaces (Lo 0) are configured as shown. What happens when RouterD is added to the network?
RouterB takes over as DR and RouterD becomes the BDR.
RouterD becomes the BDR and RouterA remains the DR.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterA becomes the BDR.
RouterC acts as the DR until the election process is complete.
RouterD becomes the DR and RouterB remains the BDR.
***There is no change in the DR or BDR until either current DR or BDR goes down.

6. Refer to the network shown in the diagram. Which command sequence on RouterB will redistribute a Gateway of Last Resort to the other routers in OSPF area 0?
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# gateway-of-last-resort 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0
***RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default-information originate
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# default network 172.16.6.6 0.0.0.3 area 0
RouterB(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.6.6
RouterB(config)# router ospf 10
RouterB(config-router)# redistribute ip default-route

7. Which of the following should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishment of neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose three.)
***OSPF interval timers mismatch
gateway of last resort not redistributed
***interface network type mismatch
no loopback interface configured
administrative distance mismatch
***inconsistent authentication configuration

8. In which types of networks are OSPF DR elections necessary? (Choose two.)
point-to-point
point-to-multipoint
***broadcast multiaccess
***nonbroadcast multiaccess

9. What does OSPF use to reduce the number of exchanges of routing information in networks where large numbers of neighbors are present? (Choose two.)
root router
backup root router
domain router
backup domain router
***designated router
***backup designated router

10. What information can be obtained from the output of the show ip ospf interface command? (Choose three.)
link-state age intervals
***timer intervals
***router ID number
link-state update intervals
***neighbor adjacencies

11. Which of the following are required when adding a network to the OSPF routing process configuration? (Choose three.)
***network address
loopback address
autonomous system number
subnet mask
***wildcard mask
***area ID

12. What speeds up convergence in a network using link-state routing?
***updates triggered by network changes
updates sent at regular intervals
updates sent only to directly connected neighbors
updates that include complete routing tables

13. Why is it difficult for routing loops to occur in networks that use link-state routing?
Each router builds a simple view of the network based on hop count.
Routers flood the network with LSAs to discover routing loops.
***Each router builds a complete and synchronized view of the network.
Routers use hold-down timers to prevent routing loops.

14. Which router is the root of an SPF tree?
border router
nearest neighboring router
***local router
trunk router, as determined by the SPF algorithm

15. Which of the following are disadvantages of link-state routing? (Choose three.)
***Link-state protocols require careful network design.
Link-state protocols are prone to routing loops.
Link-state hello updates can cause broadcast flooding.
***Link-state protocols place significant demands on router processors and memory resources.
***Link-state protocols require a knowledgeable network administrator.
Link-state protocols do not support Variable Length Subnet Masking.

16. What are the benefits of the hierarchical design approach that is used in large OSPF networks? (Choose three.)
***reduction of routing overhead
increased routing overhead
***faster convergence
slower convergence
distribution of network instability to all areas of the network
***isolation of network instability to one area of the network

17. A network administrator has configured a default route on Router_A but it is not being shared with adjacent Router_B and the other routers in the OSPF area. Which command will save the administrator the time and trouble of configuring this default route on Router_B and all of the other routers in the OSPF area?
Router_A(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
Router_B(config-router)# ospf redistribute default-route
***Router_A(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_B(config-router)# default-information originate
Router_A(config-router)# ip ospf update-default
Router_B(config-router)# ip ospf update-default

18. What does OSPF use to calculate the cost to a destination network?
***bandwidth
bandwidth and hop count
bandwidth and reliability
bandwidth, load, and reliablity

19. What will be the result of the DR and BDR elections for this single area OSPF network? (Choose three.)
HQ will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
***Router A will be DR for 10.4.0.0/16.
***HQ will be BDR for 10.4.0.0/16.
Router A will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
***Remote will be DR for 10.5.0.0/16.
Remote will be BDR for 10.5.0.0/16.

20. The routers in the diagram are configured as shown. The loopback interface on router R1 is labeled as lo0. All OSPF priorities are set to the default except for Ethernet0 of router R2, which has an OSPF priority of 2. What will be the result of the OSPF DR/BDR elections on the 192.1.1.0 network? (Choose two.)
R1 will be the DR
R1 will be the BDR
***R2 will be the DR
R2 will be the BDR
R3 will be the DR
***R3 will be the BDR

Chapter Test 1

1. Which of the following is considered a limitation of RIP v1?
***RIP v1 does not send subnet mask information in its updates.
RIP v1 is not widely supported by networking hardware vendors.
RIP v1 consumes excessive bandwidth by multicasting routing updates using a Class D address.
RIP v1 requires enhanced router processors and extra RAM to function effectively.
RIP v1 does not support load balancing across equal-cost paths.
RIP v1 authentication is complicated and time-consuming to configure.

2. Which of the following statements are true regarding RIP v1 and v2? (Choose three.)
***Both RIP versions use hop count.
Both RIP versions can provide authentication of update sources.
***Both RIP versions use 16 hops as a metric for infinite distance.
RIP v1 uses split horizon to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
RIP v1 uses hold-down times to prevent routing loops while RIP v2 does not.
***RIP v1 broadcasts routing table updates, while RIP v2 multicasts its updates.

3. A new network is to be configured on a router. Which of the following tasks must be completed to configure this interface and implement dynamic IP routing for the new network? (Choose three.)
***Select the routing protocol to be configured.
***Assign an IP address and subnet mask to the interface.
Update the ip host configuration information with the device name and new interface IP address.
***Configure the routing protocol with the new network IP address.
Configure the routing protocol with the new interface IP address and subnet mask.
Configure the routing protocol in use on all other enterprise routers with the new network information.

4. Router1 and Router2 shown in the topology have been configured with the no ip subnet-zero command. Which of the following valid VLSM network numbers could be used for the serial link between Router1 and Router2? (Choose two.)
192.168.1.0/30
***192.168.1.4/30
***192.168.1.8/30
192.168.1.96/30
192.168.1.138/30
192.168.1.190/30

5. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an enterprise have learned about a newly added network?
router# show ip address
***router# show ip route
router# show ip networks
router# show ip interface brief
router# debug ip protocol
router# debug rip update

6.How does a router know of paths to destination networks? (Choose two.)
inspection of the destination IP address in data packets
ARP requests from connected routers
***manual configuration of routes
***updates from other routers
DHCP information broadcasts
updates from the SMTP management information base

7. Refer to the network shown. How will Router1 summarize and advertise the four networks attached to its Ethernet ports?
172.16.16.0/20
172.16.19.0/20
172.16.16.0/20 and 172.16.19.0/20
***172.16.16.0/22
172.16.18.0/24
172.16.0.0/24

8. In the network shown in the graphic, three bits were borrowed from the host portion of a Class C address. How many valid host addresses will be unused on the three point-to-point links combined if VLSM is not used?
3
4
12
36
***84
180

9. A Class C address has been assigned for use in the network shown in the graphic. Using VLSM, which bit mask should be used to provide for the number of host addresses required on Router A, while wasting the fewest addresses?
/31
/30
/29
/28
***/27
/26

10. How often does RIP v1 send routing table updates, by default?
***every 30 seconds
every 45 seconds
every 60 seconds
every 90 seconds

11. What is the default network mask for a Class B address?
255.0.0.0
***255.255.0.0
255.255.255.0
255.255.255.255

12. Which subnet mask is represented by the /21 notation?
255.255.224.0
***255.255.248.0
255.255.252.0
255.255.240.0

13. Which of the following are contained in the routing updates of classless routing protocols? (Choose two.)
***32-bit address
next hop router interface
***subnet mask
unicast host address
Layer 2 address

14. What is the purpose of the network command used in the configuration of the RIP routing protocol?
It specifies RIP v2 as the routing protocol.
It enables the use of VLSM.
It specifies the fastest path to the destination route.
***It specifies which interfaces will exchange RIP routing updates.
It activates RIP for all routes that exist within the enterprise network.

15. Which of the following problems does VLSM help to alleviate?
***the shortage of IP addresses
the difficulty of assigning static IP addresses to hosts in large enterprises
the complexity of implementing advanced routing protocols such as OSPF and EIGRP
the shortage of network administrators qualified in the use of RIP v1 and IGRP

16. What does VLSM allow a network administrator to do?
utilize one subnet mask throughout an autonomous system
***utilize multiple subnet masks in the same IP address space
utilize IGRP as the routing protocol in an entire autonomous system
utilize multiple routing protocols within an autonomous system

17. A Class C network address has been subnetted into eight subnetworks. Using VLSM, the last subnet will be divided into eight smaller subnetworks. What bit mask must be used to create eight smaller subnetworks, each having two usable host addresses?
/26
/27
/28
/29
***/30
/31

18. An additional subnet is required for a new Ethernet link between Router1 and Router2 as shown in the diagram. Which of the following subnet addresses can be configured in this network to provide a maximum of 14 useable addresses for this link while wasting the fewest addresses?
192.1.1.16/26
192.1.1.96/28
192.1.1.160/28
192.1.1.196/27
***192.1.1.224/28
192.1.1.240/28

19. The network shown in the diagram is having problems routing traffic. It is suspected that the problem is with the addressing scheme. What is the problem with the addressing used in the topology?
The address assigned to the Ethernet0 interface of Router1 is a broadcast address for that subnetwork.
***The subnetwork configured on the serial link between Router1 and Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.
The subnetwork assigned to the Serial0 interface of Router1 is on a different subnetwork from the address for Serial0 of Router2.
The subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router2 overlaps with the subnetwork assigned to Ethernet0 of Router3.

20. The routers in the diagram use the subnet assignments shown. What is the most efficient route summary that can be configured on Router3 to advertise the internal networks to the cloud?
192.1.1.0/26 and 192.1.1.64/27
192.1.1.128/25
192.1.1.0/23 and 192.1.1.64/23
192.1.1.0/24
***192.1.1.0/25
192.1.1.0/24 and 192.1.1.64/24